Frequently Missed Practice Questions –2016 Quarterly Recap
On our Facebook page, we frequently post sample practice questions and invite our community to submit their answers. Most of the time, followers of our AMRI page do quite well, but occasionally, we post a question resulting in several incorrect responses. These difficult questions provide a valuable learning opportunity. Here is a recap of the most challenging questions during the second quarter of 2016.Take the quiz to see how well you do.
QUESTION 1:
If an individual with a verified Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare terminates you from treating a particular patient, can you be sued later for abandoning that patient?
A. Yes
B. No
The best answer is B: No.
Here's Why: Once your contract to provide health care services to a patient has been terminated (whether by the patient or by their legally empowered agent), they not only have removed your authority to treat, they have also removed your legal duty to treat. In this case, they would have no legal basis to take action against you. On the other hand, if your services were terminated, and you decided to ignore the termination and continue to treat the patient anyway, several causes of action against you might be created.
QUESTION 2:
In the case of a monitored patient who is developing ventricular fibrillation, what should occur first?
A. Two minutes of quality CPR
B. Defibrillation
C. The administration of lidocaine prior to the first shock
D. None of the above
The best answer is B: defibrillation.
Here's Why: When ventricular fibrillation occurs in the monitored patient, no time should be wasted on anything other than terminating the arrhythmia. Immediate defibrillation is required. When initial attempts at defibrillation fail, quality CPR should be administered while advanced airway management occurs and drugs are administered. Lidocaine does not enhance the ability to treat refractory ventricular fibrillation; however, it may be helpful in preventing re-induction. The routine use of lidocaine is not indicated.
QUESTION 3:
Atropine is most likely to work in which of the following conditions?
- 3rd degree heart block (complete heart block)
- Sinus bradycardia
- Bradycardia caused by inserting a nasogastric tube
- A bradycardic patient whose implanted pacemaker has failed
A. Options 1 and 2
B. Options 2 and 3
C. Options 3 and 4
D. None of the above
The best answer is B: (2,3).
Here's Why: Atropine works by altering vagal tone that may increase the rate of sinus discharge and enhance conduction through the AV node. Most children with symptomatic complete heart block have disease below the AV node, thus atropine has no ability to speed infranodal escape pacemakers. However, once oxygen has been ruled out, atropine is an agent that can accelerate sinus node rate. This is specifically true when the bradycardia is caused by increased parasympathetic tone (e.g., caused by invasive procedures, etc.). The majority of pediatric patients who have had artificial pacemakers inserted have disease below the AV node, making atropine ineffective. In such a case, epinephrine would be a wiser choice of drug therapy. (A transcutaneous cardiac pacemaker would be an even better choice, if available).
QUESTION 4:
In most patients, which are the easier arrhythmias to electrically convert?
A. SVT with regular R-R intervals
B. 2:1 or 1:1 atrial flutter
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. All of the above
The best answer is D: All of the above.
Here's Why: Arrhythmias caused by anomolous circuitry (e.g., regular R-R SVTs, VT and atrial flutter) typically respond to low energy. Atrial fibrillation and ventricular fibrillation most often require much higher levels in order to electrically depolarize a critical mass of fibrillating muscle.
QUESTION 5:
When adenosine fails to convert a patient with a stable narrow QRS SVT, what drugs may be considered as second line agents?
A. Digoxin
B. Calcium channel blockers (verapamil, diltiazem, etc.)
C. Beta blockers (metoprolol, atenolol, etc.)
D. Both B and C
The best answer is D: Both B and C.
Here's Why: Vagal maneuvers and adenosine are the recommended first interventions when treating stable PSVT. The most recent guidelines state that vagal maneuvers convert about 25% of patients with PSVT. If adenosine fails, the use of beta blockers or calcium channel blockers is recommended. While amiodarone may be indicated, its use should be employed by expert practitioners rather than as a routine consideration.
QUESTION 6:
Which specialist is trained to do intra-chamber electrograms used to identify the source of cardiac arrhythmias?
A. Gastroenterologist
B. Cardiovascular surgeon
C. Invasive cardiologist
D. Cardiologist electrophysiologist
The best answer is D: Cardiologist electrophysiologist.
Here's Why: The cardiology sub-speciality trained to conduct cardiac electrophysiology studies such as intra-chamber electrograms is the Electro-Physiologist (EP). Most practice in a specialty EP lab.
QUESTION 7:
1. Which of the following are commonly observed signs of shock in children?
1. Pale or mottled skin color
2. Skin: cold and moist
3. Confusion or reduced level of consciousness
4. Prolonged capillary refill
A. (1,2 only)
B. (2,3 only)
C. (1,2,3 only)
D. All of the above
The best answer is: D, All of the above
Here's Why: All of the listed signs and symptoms are related to perfusion failure (shock).
QUESTION 8:
2. If IV access is unsuccessful, which drugs can be given via the intraosseous route?
1. Epinephrine
2. Lidocaine
3. Magnesium
4. Amiodarone
A. 1,2 only
B. 1,3 only
C. 1,2,3 only
D. All of the above
The best answer is D: All of the above.
Here's Why: Virtually all drugs that can be given IV can also be administered via the intraosseous route. The major exception is adenosine. This drug needs to reach the heart within milliseconds of injection, which could not happen when injecting the bolus into bone marrow.
Want even more questions like these to help you stay sharp? Like us on Facebook for challenging ACLS and PALS questions, every Tuesday and Thursday.
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